Why haven't π±e, 2^e, π^e, or π^(√2) been shown to be irrational?
Posted 9 hours ago by
surprisetalk
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https://old.reddit.com/r/math/comments/d6xvk/why_havent_%CF%80e_2e_%CF%80e_or_%CF%802_been_shown_to_be/
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